Question description
Moynihan and Karman are truly at odds over the direction that deviance has taken in modern american society, with the former describing the drifting downward of standards for defining it while the latter approvingly citing the upward movement of standards defining deviance. They can’t both be right, can they? If not, then what would it take to settle a dispute which has had very serious implications for the level of acceptable criminality in the U.S.? Oh, and where is Krauthammer in all this controversy?
