In the 1960s, the average United States citizen measured in purchasing power was 33 times richer than the average citizen of China (or up to 70 times as rich if measured at prevailing currency exchange rates). Both nations are large continental land masses with large populations, and as nations had historically virtually nothing to do with each other to that time. So why were United States citizens so much richer? Discuss. Also discuss how and why this ratio has changed since the 1960s and what the prospect for this ratio for the future is. Please write at least 600 words to discuss it. You can use graph or data to support the answer. The two books I upload maybe useful for the question. If you use the resource, please citation.
Interpretations of the Reichstag Fire
i) Van der Lubbe was a madman, and he set fire to the Reichstag all by himself, but the Nazis genuinely believed the fire was the start of a Communist uprising. ii) The Reichstag Fire was started by the Nazis to give them an excuse to take emergency powers and lock up or kill the […]